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Exam Code: 1Z0-880
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 Network Administrator Certified Expert Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 317 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The TCP protocol has an algorithm that implements flow control on both the sender side and the
receiver side. What is the function of the congestion window on the sending side?
A. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be sent
B. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be received
C. advertises the amount of data loss
D. adjusts the rate at which data can be sent
E. adjusts the rate at which data can be received
Answer: D

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NO.2 The system administrator needs to configure a static, default route to 192.168.0.1. The netmask is
255.255.255.240. Which two commands are used to ensure that the default route is installed immediately
and at the next reboot? (Choose two.)
A. route add default 192.168.0.1
B. routeadm -u -a default 192.168.0.1
C. echo 192.168.0.1/25 > /etc/defaultrouter
D. routeadm add default -netmask 255.255.255.240 192.168.0.1
E. echo 192.168.0.1 > /etc/defaultrouter
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 While making configuration changes on your DHCP server, you want to test the changes on a Solaris
OS workstation, which is configured as a DHCP client. Rather than rebooting the client or waiting for the
DHCP lease to expire, which command can you use to cause the workstation to re-query the DHCP
server?
A. dhcpagent -f
B. ifconfig hme0 down; ifconfig hme0 up
C. ifconfig hme0 dhcp release; ifconfig hme0 dhcp start
D. This cannot be done. You must reboot.
E. svcadm restart dhcpagent
Answer: C

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NO.4 A system administrator has configured a Solaris system to operate as an NTP server supporting peer
NTP servers and clients on a local subnet. The NTP configuration file contains the line: enable auth
What impact does this have on NTP behavior?
A. The network router must broadcast the NTP server IP address.
B. All NTP clients on the local subnet must be configured to support key negotiation.
C. The server is authoritative for a reference clock.
D. All NTP servers on the local subnet must be configured to support key negotiation.
E. Time adjustments are only be accepted by Stratum 0 servers.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Ethernet frames include a unique address indicating the source of the frame. What is this unique
address called?
A. IP address
B. Calling Party Address
C. MAC address
D. source VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.6 You want to configure the hme0 interface with an IPv6 address and the prefix fec0. Which two
configurations achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0:1 contains a host name, which is defined in the /etc/hosts file.
This entry has an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
B. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0:1 contains a host name, which is defined in the /etc/inet/ipnodes file.
This entry has an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
C. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0 contains an addif hostname entry in addition to the normal host name.
This cross-references an entry in /etc/inet/ipnodes with IPv6 address prefix fec0:.
D. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0 contains a host name defined in the /etc/inet/ipnodes file. This entry has
an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place each frame error on its description.
Answer:

NO.8 A Solaris 10 OS server has packet filtering enabled. Which command displays information on stdout
regarding packets that match rules?
A. syslogd -d sysout
B. ipmon
C. ipf -l block
D. netstat -a block
Answer: B

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NO.9 Given the following snoop trace:
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.73040)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.79499)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.79606)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.86071)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.86199)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.92638)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.92734)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.99198)
Why do the system clocks remain unsynchronized despite several queries?
A. The NTP client requires more updates from the NTP server.
B. The NTP client is configured as a broadcast client.
C. The NTP server daemon is disabled.
D. The /etc/init/ntp.client file is misconfigured.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A system on your network is named sys-01. This system has Solaris 10 OS with packet filtering enabled
and configured. The Solaris IP Filter configuration, stored in the /etc/ipf/ipf.conf file of this system was:
pass in quick proto tcp from any to any port = 22 keep state block in all and allowed an ssh connection
into your sys-01 system from both hme0 and hme1 interfaces. Due to a change in your network, you had
to modify the packet filtering rules of the sys-01 system. The packet filtering rules now allow ssh
connections into sys-01 only using the hme0 interface. The following changes are made to /etc/ipf/ipf.conf:
pass in quick on hme0 proto tcp from any to 192.168.1.1/32
port = 22 keep state block in all
Which command loads the new packet filtering rules?
A. ipmon -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
B. ipf -Fo -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
C. ipf -Fa -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
D. ippool -Fa -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
E. ipf -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
Answer: C

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NO.11 A section of the ifconfig -a command is run on a Solaris system with Probe-Based IPMP configured as
follows:
hme0:1:
flags=9040843<UP,BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,DEPRECATED,IPV4,NOFAILOVER>
mtu 1500 index 2 inet 192.168.1.51 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 192.168.1.255
The address shown is marked as deprecated.
In which two situations are addresses that are marked deprecated used as source addresses for
outbound packets? (Choose two.)
A. when the system acts as a router
B. when there are no other addresses available in the interface group
C. when a TCP connection is requested
D. when a static default router is configured for the system
E. when an application has been explicitly bound to the 192.168.1.51 address Answer: B,E

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NO.12 You configure an NTP server to use its local undisciplined clock and also an external server at address
192.20.20.1. Additionally, you create a fudge line:
fudge 127.127.1.0 stratum 12
Which is the purpose of the fudge line?
A. to ensure that the synchronization is checked at 12:00 P.M. each day
B. to ensure that the server's local clock is seen as a stratum 12 server
C. to make the xntpd daemon check the clients clock every 12 minutes
D. to ensure that only servers below stratum 12 are queried
Answer: B

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
The UDP Transport layer protocol receives data from the application and encapsulates the data in UDP
datagrams. UDP datagrams have a leading header section.
Place the items on the appropriate UDP header section.
Note: Only four items are used.
Answer:

NO.14 A host's IPv6 link-local unicast address is based on the host's Ethernet address. A 16-bit code is
inserted in the 64-bit Interface ID portion of the IPv6 address to enable a 48-bit Ethernet address to
become 64 bits in length. Which value represents this added 16-bit code?
A. FFFF
B. FFEE
C. FFFE
D. FE80
E. FEC0
Answer: C

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NO.15 In the context of packet filtering, the Solaris IP Filter firewall provides a set of user level utility and
kernel modules. Which two are kernel modules of Solaris IP Filter? (Choose two.)
A. ipfs
B. ippool
C. ipmon
D. ipf
E. ipnat
F. pfil
Answer: D,F

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NO.16 You want to modify the failure detection time for IPMP so that failures are detected more quickly on the
IPMP group containing the IPv6 interface eri0. Which file you do edit?
A. /kernel/drv/ipmp.conf
B. /etc/default/mpathd6
C. /kernel/drv/ipmp6.conf
D. /etc/default/mpathd
E. /etc/hostname6.eri0
Answer: D

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NO.17 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
In the context of writing filtering rule sets for the Solaris 10 OS IP Filter firewall, complete the rule that
blocks outgoing ICMP echo replies on the qfe0 interface.
Use three options to complete the rule.
Answer:

NO.18 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place each network component on the layer at which it operates.
Answer:

NO.19 Given the following output:
Routing Table: IPv4
Destination Gateway Flags Ref Use Interface
192.168.1.0 192.168.1.1 U 1 0 hme0
224.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 U 1 0 hme0
default sys-gw UG 1 0 127.0.0.1 127.0.0.1 UH 2 6 lo0
This output shows that the system has a default gateway set. How can the default gateway be set?
A. set by in.routed through the RDISC protocol
B. set manually through: route add sys-gw default
C. set by inetd through the use of configuration text files
D. set through the command: routeadm add default -UG sys-gw
Answer: A

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
You have configured a JumpStart server. When you attempt to install a client machine, it starts booting,
but stops responding shortly afterwards.
Which command, when run on the JumpStart server, helps diagnose this problem?
A. snoop 8:0:20:fd:e9:3c
B. ndd -get /dev/eri0 errors
C. /usr/sbin/in.rarpd -d -a
D. snoop -d eri0
E. snoop dhcp
Answer: A

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NO.21 A newly installed system is experiencing network performance problems. You suspect it may be related
to the duplex or speed settings on the hme0 interface. Which two commands check the duplex and speed
of the hme0 interface? (Choose two.)
A. ndd -get /dev/hme duplex
B. netstat hme link_mode
C. netstat -I hme
D. ndd -get /dev/hme link_mode
E. ndd -get /dev/hme link_status
F. ndd -get /dev/hme link_speed
G. ndd -get /dev/hme speed Answer: D,F

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NO.22 An administrator is setting up the new Solaris platform server, logger, and has forgotten the
appropriate mail relay server to use for this subnet.
# cat /etc/resolv.conf
domainname central.company.com
nameserver 170.63.2.10
nameserver 163.120.15.10
Which command can the administrator use to discover this information?
A. cat /etc/nsswitch.conf
B. nsloookup type=A logger.central.company.com
C. dig -relay 163.120.15.10
D. dig central.company.com mx
E. dig mailrelay logger.central.company.com
Answer: D

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NO.23 A system is being configured as a network boot server. Which three must be present or online for the
boot server to successfully answer RARP requests? (Choose three.)
A. /etc/inet/hosts
B. /etc/ethers
C. svc:/network/ethers
D. /etc/resolv.conf E. svc:/network/rarp
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
You configure a 6to4 router, and try to communicate from system A to system B. The interfaces of the
source and destination systems are shown in the exhibit. Your ping:
systemA# ping -s fe80::203:baff:fe02:7aa5
yields:
ICMPv6 Address Unreachable from gateway 2002:8193:c9f::1
for icmp6 from 2002:8193:c9f::1 to fe80::203:baff:fe02:7aa5
What is the cause of the problem?
A. You did not add a default route for the IPv6 traffic.
B. You can NOT reach the system on the local link address.
C. You do not have a route to gateway 2002:8193:c9f::1.
D. The system you are pinging on does not have IPv6 configured.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Protocols are used by computer networks to communicate or exchange data. A data
communication protocol is a set of rules that must be followed by electronic devices to
communicate with each other. Which three describe these sets of rules? (Choose three.)
A. Transport - Manages the connections between cooperating applications
B. Timing - Speed matching and sequencing
C. Application - Handles the detail and functions
D. Internet - Manages data addressing
E. Syntax - Data format and coding
F. Semantics - Controls information and error handling
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.26 Company A owns, and is authoritative, for the domain aco.com. Company A is in the process of
consolidating systems as a result of the purchase of Company B. As part of this transition effort, network
administrators have configured Company A's DNS server zone files to include and become authoritative
for Company B's bco.com domain. The administrators want to turn off Company B's DNS servers. Which
two steps should be completed prior to this shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. initiate zone transfer to A.root-servers.net
B. create an aco.com to bco.com reverse zone configuration file
C. reduce the TTL value for the aco.com domain
D. require hosts on bco.com to update the IP address used for DNS resolution
E. update the .com Top-Level name server entries for bco.com
Answer: D,E

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NO.27 You have a requirement to configure two new network ranges. One of these networks requires 200 IP
addresses and the other requires 600 IP addresses. Which network should you use to obtain the most
efficient usage of IP address space.?
A. 10.12.60/24 and 10.12.48/21
B. 192.168.2/24 and 192.168.3.0/23
C. 10.10.10/24 and 192.168/16
D. 10.12.53/24 and 10.12.48/22
Answer: A

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NO.28 You configure Solaris IP Filter on a Solaris system named myhost as a host-based firewall. While
attempting to telnet to myhost from another host named remotehost, you receive this error:
$ telnet myhost
Trying 192.168.1.100...
telnet: Unable to connect to remote host: Connection timed out
You run netstat -a on myhost and find this entry:
Local Address Remote Address Swind Send-Q Rwind Recv-Q State
myhost.23 remotehost.39846 0 0 49640 0 SYN_RCVD
What is the cause of this problem?
A. myhost and remotehost are on different networks.
B. The ipf kernel module is not loaded.
C. remotehost does not have a route to myhost.
D. Telnet is an insecure protocol and therefore Solaris IP Filter always blocks it.
E. myhost has a block out rule for traffic to remotehost.
Answer: E

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NO.29 The system administrator of a firewall running Solaris IP Filter writes an updated set of rules in
/root/newrules. Before implementing the rules, the rule set needs to be tested for syntax errors. Which
command accomplishes this?
A. inetadm restart svc:/network/ipfilter:/root/newrules
B. ipf -Fa -f /root/newrules
C. ipf -n -f /root/newrules
D. svcadm restart svc:/network/ipfilter:/root/newrules
Answer: C

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NO.30 The TCP protocol has an algorithm that implements flow control on both the sender side and the
receiver side. What is the function of the congestion window on the sending side?
A. adjusts the rate at which data can be sent
B. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be received
C. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be sent
D. advertises the amount of data loss
E. adjusts the rate at which data can be received
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Purchasing Essentials)
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NO.1 A recent shipment of item A was routed to the inspection department according to standard practice, but
no receipt for item A is available in the system for inspection.
What might have happened?
A. Requester set the receipt routing to Direct Delivery in the requisition,
B. Receiving clerk created an express receipt instead of a standard one.
C. Buyer changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt in the purchase order line.
D. Buyer changed the routing to Direct Delivery at the supplier site level for this supplier.
E. Receiving clerk changed the receipt routing to Standard Receipt at the time of receiving.
Answer: E

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NO.2 Identify the correct sequence of steps in the Procure to Pay period dose process.
A. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile AP activity for the period. >
Close the PO period.
B. Prepare for period close. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Close the PO period. > Post
journal entries in GL
C. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in PO. > Post journal entries in GL > Reconcile PO activity for the period. >
Close the AP period.
D. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Create accounting. > Transfer
and review. > Close the period in AP. > Reconcile AP activity for the period. > Post journal entries in GL >
Close the PO period.
E. Prepare for period dose. > Run Validation/ Review and resolve holds. > Transfer and review. > Close
the period in AP. > Create accounting. > Post journal entries in GL. > Reconcile AP activity for the
period. > Close the PO period.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which control option prevents changes or additions to the purchase order or release, but maintains the
ability to receive and match invoices?
A. Hold
B. Firm
C. Close
D. Freeze
E. Finally Close
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three financial options can be defaulted when you enter a new supplier? (Choose three.)
A. Ship Via
B. Default Buyer
C. RFQ-Only Site
D. Bill-To Location
E. Supplier Classification
F. Payment Bank Account
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 The buyer decides to automatically update and create sourcing rules, as part of the blanket purchase
agreement approval process. However, on clicking the Approve button, the buyer does not see any option
to update and create blanket purchase sourcing rules.
Which profile option has the buyer failed to set up?
A. PO: Automatic Document Sourcing
B. MRP: Default Sourcing Assignment Set
C. PO: Allow Auto-generate Sourcing Rules
D. PO: Allow Autocreation of Oracle Sourcing Documents
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which four are supported by the Receiving Open Interface (ROI)? (Choose four.)
A. Unordered receipt
B. Dynamic locators
C. Deliver transactions
D. Movement statistics
E. Correct transactions
F. Receive transactions
G. Transfer transactions
Answer: C,E,F,G

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NO.7 Your company often orders Items that are sourced from multiple suppliers. At any given time, the
supplier varies depending on the supplier's current production capability and price offering. The price
varies throughout the year. For a particular Item, there is no single supplier that receives the majority of
the orders.
What is the best way to set up this Item?
A. Create blanket purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and
approved supplier list entries.
B. Create contract purchase agreements, a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers, and
approved supplier list entries.
C. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements or sourcing rules. Manually AutoCreate
requisitions onto standard purchase orders.
D. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
E. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier, a sourcing rule for just that supplier, and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An approved supplier list (ASL) is being defined in a multiorganization environment, which two
statements are valid?
A. Setting up a Global ASL is mandatory.
B. If a supplier item has a local ASL setup, you cannot set it up on a Global ASL.
C. The supplier for an item-supplier association must be global, while the supplier site can be local.
D. Company X has set up Planning would source planned orders. The approval status of the supplier can
be set to New or Approved.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 When you enter a receipt; you first use the Find Expected Receipts window to locate the source
document for the receipt.
Select four valid source documents for a receipt. (Choose four.)
A. An approved internal requisition line
B. An intransit shipment within your Inventory
C. A shipment from a supplier based on a purchase order
D. A move order from Inventory for material storage relocation
E. A return from a customer based on a return material authorization (RMA)
F. A shipment from inventory backed by an internal safes order generated by an internal requisition
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.10 Select the best business practice for a supplier that is being newly added to the Approved Supplier List.
A. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link
B. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Schedule Confirmation but not Manufacturer Link
C. Allow PO Approval, Sourcing and Manufacturer Link but not Schedule Confirmation
D. Allow PO Approval, Schedule Confirmation and Manufacturer Link but not Sourcing
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about using foreign currency? (Choose two)
A. Requisition total is expressed in foreign currency.
B. Currency can be changed even after a requisition is approved.
C. Currency cannot be changed once a purchase order is approved.
D. A foreign currency reference can be specified for each purchase order line.
E. Requisition can automatically source blanket agreements or catalog quotations with foreign currency
information.
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 There are several types of RFQ, Including Catalog RFQ, Standard RFQ, and Bid RFQ.
There are only two classes of RFQ. Identify the two valid classes and their appropriate purposes.
(Choose two.)
A. Bid Class, which supports Shipments
B. Standard Class, which supports Items
C. Planned Class, which supports Catalogs
D. Catalog Class, which supports Price Breaks
E. Cost Class, which supports Bid Price Breaks
F. Category Class, which supports Supplier Catalogs
G. Contract Class, which supports Total Dollars Agreed to
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 A medium-sized multinational company based in US has two business groups (B6), BGI (for US) and
B62 (for Europe), with position approval hierarchies HI and H2, respectively.
The company has a policy that only the Controllers and those above them can approve capital Items on
requisitions and purchase orders. However, the Purchase Manager (who reports to the Controller) must
also be able to authorize capital purchases.
The account range for capital items is: 2000-2599.
The relevant approval limits are:
1. Purchase Manager in both BGs: $100,000
2) Controller in BGI: $500,000 3) Controller in BG2: $200,000
Which two options represent a valid and efficient approval process? (Choose two.)
A. An employee in B62 raises a requisition for $5000. This is verified by the employee's manager and
forwarded to the group Controller in BGI who approves it.
B. An employee in BG2 raises a capital requisition for $250,000, which is verified by the employee's
manager and then forwarded to the group Controller in BG2 who approves it.
C. The buyer hi BGI raises a standard purchase order for $250,000 with the charge account 2106. The
Purchase Manager verifies it and forwards it to the controller in BGI who approves it.
D. A buyer in BG2 raises a purchase order for $10,000 with charge for inventory items to be stocked in an
asset subinventory. The Purchase Manager in BG2 verifies and forwards it to the Controller in BG2.
E. The shop floor supervisor in BGI raises a requisition for a new drilling machine for $250,000. The
supervisor's manager (Production Manager) verifies the requisition and forwards it to the Controller in BGI
for a final approval.
F. The Purchase Manager in BG2 raises a requisition for $5000 for computer equipment. The Controller in
B62 approves it and instructs the buyer to ensure a 2-year warranty on this equipment. The buyer in BG2
places the order on the supplier.
Answer: C,F

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NO.14 The following transactions occurred at BUY Co., where you implemented the ERS functionality in
Oracle Purchasing:
Purchase order unit price: $10
Receipt #1001: 150 units (gross of 50 units returned at the time of receiving)
Receipt #1002: 250 units
The Pay on Receipt process is run nightly, with the summary level set to Pay Site at the supplier site. The
aging period is 0.
What would the Pay on Receipt process generate for these transactions?
A. a $3500 invoice
B. a $4000 invoice
C. a $50 invoice and a $2500 invoice
D. a $1500 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo
E. a $1000 invoice, a $2500 invoice, and a $50 debit memo
Answer: A

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NO.15 A multinational company is setting up the sourcing rules and approved supplier list (ASL) to source
inventory items across different organizations.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You do not need to create a local ASL if you create a Global ASL
B. Inventory organizations used in the sourcing rules must be set up in the Shipping Networks.
C. You need to match the supplier between a sourcing rule and an ASL, but not the supplier site.
D. The country of origin must be entered in the ASL, or it would not be available on the purchasing
document.
E. A commodity can be assigned to a supplier at both the global level and at the local level, and the local
level assignment takes precedence.
Answer: B,E

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NO.16 Company X is identifying the major aspects of its inventory organization structure and definitions. Which
two actions or statements would be correct? (Choose two.)
A. An Inventory location can be an Office Site only If it Is also a registered office.
B. It can consider manufacturing facilities, warehouses, distribution centers, and branch offices, as well as
other entities.
C. It does not need a minimum of two inventory organizations in a master/child relationship, but it is a best
practice to do so.
D. The financial impact of inventory parameters is limited to Purchase Price Variance and Intransit
Account for Interorganization shipments and Transfer Credits for the sending organization.
E. You can control inventory organizations across different operating units from one responsibility but you
cannot have ft default to one operating unit. The last used operating unit used before you tog off would
default when you log in the next time.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 When implementing Purchasing at FGH Corp., you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a
poorly maintained supplier list. Identify three inefficiencies. (Choose three.)
A. entering suppliers twice
B. issuing specific invoices
C. generating inaccurate returns
D. generating inaccurate receipts
E. generating accurate supplier reports
F. issuing more payments than necessary
G. issuing more purchase orders than necessary
Answer: A,F,G

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NO.18 Which setup profile option allows you to send a report directly to a browser window.?
A. Viewer: Text
B. Concurrent: Report Copies
C. Flexfields: Open Key Window
D. Concurrent Report: Access Level
Answer: A

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NO.19 Your customer wants to convert both RFQs and Quotations to have tracking for Small Business Audit
trail. The volume for Quotations is very high and only Approved RFQs and Quotations are being
converted. What would you recommend as the best conversion strategy for RFQs and Quotations?
A. Data Load both RFQs and Quotations.
B. Manually enter both RFQs and Quotations.
C. Manually enter RFQs, and Data Load Quotations.
D. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for both RFQs and Quotations.
E. Use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for RFQs and Data Load Quotations,
F. Manually enter RFQs, and use the Purchase Documents Open Interface for the loading of Quotations.
Answer: F

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NO.20 Which window in Purchasing would you use to copy on existing global Approved Supplier List entry and
make it local to your organization?
A. Supplier Statue
B. Request For Quotation
C. Supplier-Item Attribute
D. Approved Supplier List Statuses
E. Sourcing Rule/Bill of Distribution Assignments
Answer: C

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NO.1 A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance
variables A and B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many
business calls, and can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper
instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is
in variable B.
for example, B is of type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and
activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans
no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate
annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate
annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable
type and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a
Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated
method.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2

NO.3 Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.4 A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo.
Foo defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:

NO.5 private int value;

NO.6 }
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define
the bean with the ejb name of BarBean?
1.package acme;
2.import javax.ejb.*;
3.import java.io.*;
4.

NO.7 Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup("fooRef");

NO.8 foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Foo1 and Foo2 references the same object.
10. A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface
FooRemote containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of
application-defined type MyData.
11.public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {
12.int a;
13.}
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11.public void foo (MyData data) {
12.data.a = 2;
13.}
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef
and calls method foo with the following code:
11.MyData data = new MyData();
12.data.a = 1;
13.Fooref.foo(data);
14.System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
Answer: B

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11. Which two statements are correct about stateless session beans? (Choose two.)
A. The bean class may declare instance variables.
B. The lifetime of the bean instance is controlled by the client.
C. The container may use the same bean instance to handle multiple business method invocations
at the same time.
D. The container may use the same bean instance to handle business method invocations requested
by different clients, but not concurrently.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
* A: Stateless session beans are EJB's version of the traditional transaction processing applications,
which are executed using a procedure call. The procedure executes from beginning to end and then
returns the result. Once the procedure is done, nothing about the data that was manipulated or the
details of the request are remembered. There is no state.
These restrictions don't mean that a stateless session bean can't have instance variables and
therefore some kind of internal state. There's nothing that prevents you from keeping a variable
that tracks the number of times a bean has been called or that tracks data for debugging. An
instance variable can even hold a reference to a live resource like a URL connection for writing
debugging data, verifying credit cards, or anything else that might be useful.
C:A stateless session bean is relatively easy to develop and also very efficient. Stateless session
beans require few server resources because they are neither persistent nor dedicated to one client.
Because they aren't dedicated to one client, many EJB objects can use just a few instances of a
stateless bean. A stateless session bean does not maintain conversational state relative to the EJB
object it is servicing, so it can be swapped freely between EJB objects. As soon as a stateless
instance services a method invocation, it can be swapped to another EJB object immediately.
Because there is no conversational state, a stateless session bean doesn't require passivation or
activation, further reducing the overhead of swapping. In short, they are lightweight and fast!
* The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean Because a stateless session bean is never passivated, its
lifecycle has only two stages: nonexistent and ready for the invocation of business methods. The EJB
container typically creates and maintains a pool of stateless session beans, beginning the stateless
session bean's lifecycle. The container performs any dependency injection and then invokes the
method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean is now ready to have its business methods
invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists
(not B). The bean's instance is then ready for garbage collection.
12. A developer wants to release resources within a stateless session bean class. The cleanup
method should be executed by the container before an instance of the class is removed. The
deployment descriptor is NOT used.
Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The cleanup method may declare checked exceptions.
B. The cleanup method must have no arguments and return void.
C. The cleanup method is executed in an unspecified transaction and security context.
D. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PreDestroy annotation.
E. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PostDestroy annotation.
F. The cleanup method is executed in the transaction and security context of the last business method Invocation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name
"fooRef" that is mapped to FooBean's Foo interface.
11.@Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;
12.public void doSomething () {

NO.10 }
A. @Stateful
public class BarEJB implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = "Bar")
public class Barbean implements Bar {
public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = "bar")
public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar {
public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}
Answer: C

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7. A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients
are written by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the
bean when ending their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined
bean cache size.
The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either
passivation or timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation
and timeout situations? (Choose three.)
A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establishreferences to resources in an @Init annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a@PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11

NO.12 A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer
chooses an EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business
component tier? (Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server
Answer: A,C,F

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Explanation:
The EJB tier hosts the business logic of a J2EE application and provides system-level services to the
business componentsproblems include state maintenance, transaction management, and
availability to local and remote clients.
The EJB 3.1 specification does not address "high-end" features like clustering (not B), load-balancing
(A) and fail-over (not E).
F: The target platform for EJB is Java EE.

NO.13 public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

NO.14 A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most
appropriate technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP .
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.
Answer: C,E

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NO.15 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean's transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across
various containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT
considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean's transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the
information is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
D: An EJB container is nothing but the program that runs on the server and implements the EJB
specifications. EJB container provides special type of the environment suitable for running the
enterprise components. Enterprise beans are used in distributed applications that typicallycontains
the business logic.
4. Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean
transitions to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean The EJB container typically creates and maintains a pool of
stateless session beans, beginning the stateless session bean's lifecycle. The container performs any
dependency injection and then invokes the method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean
is now ready to have its business methods invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists.
The bean's instance is then ready for garbage collection.
Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean:
Note: An enterprise bean goes through various stages during its lifetime, or lifecycle. Each type of
enterprise bean (stateful session, stateless session, singleton session, or message-driven) has a
different lifecycle.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/javaee/ 6 /tutorial/doc/giplj.html
5. Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose
one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API
Answer: C,D

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6. A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local
business interface:
1.package acme;
2.public interface Bar {
3.public void bar ();

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NO.1 Given the code fragment:
String valid = "true";
if (valid) System.out.println ( valid );
else system.out.println ("not valid");
What is the result?
A. Valid
B. not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two are valid instantiations and initializations of a multi dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array 2D ={ { 0, 1, 2, 4} {5, 6}};
B. int [] [] array2D = new int [2] [2];
array2D[0] [0] = 1;
array2D[0] [1] =2;
array2D[1] [0] =3;
array2D[1] [1] =4;
C. int [] [] []array3D = {{0, 1}, {2, 3}, {4, 5}};
D. int [] [] [] array3D = new int [2] [2] [2];
array3D [0] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
array3D [1] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
E. int [] [] array2D = {0, 1};
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 View the exhibit:
public class Student { public String name = ""; public int age = 0; public String major = "Undeclared"; public
boolean fulltime = true;
public void display() {
System.out.println("Name: " + name + " Major: " + major); } public boolean isFullTime() {
return fulltime;
}
}
Given:
Public class TestStudent {
Public static void main(String[] args) {
Student bob = new Student ();
Student jian = new Student();
bob.name = "Bob";
bob.age = 19;
jian = bob; jian.name = "Jian";
System.out.println("Bob's Name: " + bob.name);
}
}
What is the result when this program is executed.?
A. Bob's Name: Bob
B. Bob's Name: Jian
C. Nothing prints
D. Bob s name
Answer: B

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NO.4 An unchecked exception occurs in a method dosomething()
Should other code be added in the dosomething() method for it to compile and execute?
A. The Exception must be caught
B. The Exception must be declared to be thrown.
C. The Exception must be caught or declared to be thrown.
D. No other code needs to be added.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Given the code fragment:
int b = 4;
b -- ;
System.out.println (-- b);
System.out.println(b);
What is the result?
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 3 2
D. 3 3
Answer: A

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NO.6 Given:
public class ScopeTest {
int z;
public static void main(String[] args){
ScopeTest myScope = new ScopeTest();
int z = 6;
System.out.println(z);
myScope.doStuff();
System.out.println(z);
System.out.println(myScope.z);
}
void doStuff() {
int z = 5;
doStuff2();
System.out.println(z);
}
void doStuff2() {
z=4;
}
}
What is the result?
A.
6 5 6 4
B.
6 5 5 4
C.
6 5 6 6
D.
6 5 6 5
Answer: A

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NO.7 Given: public class DoCompare1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] table = {"aa", "bb", "cc"};
for (String ss: table) {
int ii = 0;
while (ii < table.length) {
System.out.println(ss + ", " + ii);
ii++;
}
}
How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given the code fragment: interface SampleClosable {
public void close () throws java.io.IOException;
}
Which three implementations are valid?
A. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws java.io.IOException { / /do
something } }
B. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
C. public class Test implementations SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
D. public classTest extends SampleCloseable { Public voidclose ()throws java.IO.IOException{ / / do
something } }
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given the code fragment:
Int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
Systemout.printIn(array [4] [1]);
System.out.printIn (array) [1][4]);
int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
System.out.println(array [4][1]);
System.out.println(array) [1][4]);
What is the result?
A. 4 Null
B. Null 4
C. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
D. 4 An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundException is thrown at run time
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given the code fragment:
int [] [] array2D = {{0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, 5, 6}};
system.out.print (array2D[0].length+ "" ); system.out.print(array2D[1].getClass(). isArray() + "");
system.out.println (array2D[0][1]);
What is the result?
A. 3false1
B. 2true3
C. 2false3
D. 3true1
E. 3false3
F. 2true1
G. 2false1
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle User Productivity Kit 11 Technical Consultant Essentials Exam)
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NO.1 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
entering My Oracle Support ?
A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You can deploy your UPK content by placing the Player package on a web server and making it
available to your users.You do this by copying the contents of the Player Package folder in the published
content.Then you will need to create a link to two files.
Identify the two files.
A.play.exe
B.index.html
C.default.htm
D.tocx.html
E.kp.html
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Identify three statements that are true about the Installation of service pack updates.
A.You can install these updates without having to reinstall the Developer.
B.If both UPK and Knowledge Center need to be updated, you must run the installer twice.
C.As part of the service pack, you must reinstall the UPK Developer.
D.After installing a service pack for the Developer, you should update each Developer Library with the
appropriate service pack documents.
E.Service packs will run automatically and you do not need to worry about updating your toolset.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 What are the minimum permissions needed to run the install scripts?
A.DB_Accessadmin, DB_Owner
B.DataReader, DataWriter, DB_Owner
C.DataReader, DataWriter
D.DB_Accessadmin
E.DB_Owner
Answer: D

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NO.5 While you are working offline, the training administrator changes the permissions to the folder in which
you have created a new topic.The permissions are changed to "List Only."
What happens when you go online and your library is synchronized with the server?
A.The content administrator is warned automatically and will restore your folder permissions so that your
work is safe.
B.The document will appear in the Lost document view.
C.The permissions for the folder are automatically restored to modify permissions during the
synchronization.
D.I can revert the permissions myself after I receive a system warning.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A UPK content author has a single-user installation of UPK 3.6.1 on his or her computer.The author
would like to keep this installation on his or her machine, but also wants to Install the single user of UPK
11.0.
Identify the process that enables this.
A.The content author needs to create an .odarc file of all the content he or she wants to keep from the
3.6.1 single-user Installation, and then uninstall 3.6.1.After 3.6.1 is uninstalled, the author can install
11.0.Two different versions of UPK single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
B.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in a folder structure that is different
from where the UPK 3.6.1 is installed.Both versions of the developer can be launched independently.
C.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and Install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 Installation.This will upgrade the 3.6.1 installation to version 11.0.Two different versions of UPK
single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
D.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 installation.Because the cache locations of 11.0 and 3.6.1 are different, the two versions of the UPK
can be launched independently.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is required to enable end-user access of UPK-generated content-sensitive help
in an application using the UPK Help Integration method?
A.The application administrator must manually map context IDs from each page to the appropriate URLs
for help.
B.The application administrator must make minor configuration changes to the application.
C.The application developer must write custom code to enable the help system to launch nonapplication
help files.
D.The application administrator must use the UPK Developer ¯ s C on t ex t Ed it o r t o m ap t he app li ca ti on
context.
Answer: B

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NO.8 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are asked to attend a presales call to support your field account representative with a sale of
UPK.The account representative has asked you to participate in the meeting because the client has
questions about deploying In-Application Support using the SmartHelp browser add-in option in UPK.
The client wants to know what is required to deploy SmartHelp to their user community.
Identify the best response.
A.SmartHelp is deployed from a web server by having the user access setup file in the playerpackage
directory.Users installing SmartHelp must have admin privileges and configure the browsers for ActiveX
controls.
B.SmartHelp is deployed to the user community by installing the UPK single-user option on the end user's
desktop and configuring the browser for ActiveX controls.
C.The SmartHelp browser add-in is deployed using the in-application support configuration utility to push
an ActiveX control to the user population.
D.SmartHelp needs only a web server to run on and is plug-in free.Therefore, it does not require
Installation to deploy it to the user population.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Identify two true statements about the installation of the Knowledge Center User Import Utility.
A.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only before the Knowledge Center Is
installed.
B.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on the same server as the Knowledge
Center.
C.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on any workstation that can connect to the
Knowledge Center.
D.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only in the Knowledge Center application
root directory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 You are engaged as a UPK administrator and publisher for a customer who is in the process of
upgrading their Oracle EBS application suite to R12.x.The UPK content development team has finished
the first set of topics and asked you to publish the content, so their SMEs can directly access the topic
they are responsible for.The SMEs are busy and do not have time to download Individual topics.
Which method should you choose to publish and distribute the content?
A.Publish the content to the individual topic outputs and host the topics on a web server providing links to
each topic.
B.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and distribute the player package folder to each SME.
C.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide the
SMEs with a link to the play.exe file.
D.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide
content developers a link tokp.html.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

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NO.17 UPK supported languages are grouped by the Tier Structure, Tier 1 and Tier 2.Which of the following is
not translated if it is a Tier 2 language?
A.Player Interface
B.Developer
C.Default and Microsoft template Text
D.Static text in Document publishing formats
Answer: B

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NO.18 A content administrator has asked you to troubleshoot a multi-user UPK Installation: the authors unable
to connect to the server.The administrator sent you the following message from a Windows event log:
The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to
"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET \Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.
Where can you fix this permission problem?
A.On the Oracle database server
B.On the affected client workstations
C.In the UPK library
D.On the application server
Answer: D

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NO.19 Identify three compatible file formats that can be used when updating or customizing your logo in UPK.
A.JPG
B.PPT
C.TIF
D.BMP
E.EXE
F.PDF
G.HTML
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

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