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Exam Code: 000-N19
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Sales Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What are the default settings for newly created Communities?
A. All new Communities will be created with the Files widget to upload and share files with the community.
B. All new Communities will have customized templates to create sub-communities.
C. All new Communities will be created with the Bookmarks widget to share links with the community.
D. Communities do not have default settings and the owner must create the settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What level (if any) of anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available to SmartCloud iNotes users?
A. Anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available for Administrators to provide scheduled scans for
viruses and spam.
B. The user must purchase his/her own spam and virus protector because SmartCloud for Social
Business is in the cloud.
C. Full anti-spam and anti-virus services are included with SmartCloud for Social Business.
D. Basic protection is included and advanced protection with additional end user configuration options are
available.
Answer: C

IBM study guide   000-N19   000-N19

NO.3 Taylor, a paid subscriber to SmartCloud Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer who
does not have an account. How would Taylor invite his customer to join?
A. Taylor's customer could not participate in the meeting since the customer is a guest. Taylor could
record the meeting and send a link to the video recording.
B. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID and when the customer clicked the URL
link, the customer would be prompted to register. Once the customer has registered, they can participate
in the meeting.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask his customer to visit the
SmartCloud for Social Business website to enter the meeting ID and their name in order to join.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for a guest to be registered. Once registration is complete,
the customer can join the meeting by visiting the SmartCloud for Social Business website, authenticating
with their credentials and entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Carl wants his customer to experience SmartCloud for Social Business but the customer does not have
an account. What must Carl do to provide access to SmartCloud for Social Business for his customer.?
A. Carl can assign the customer a guest account with a temporary password for 30 days.
B. Carl can provide the customer with a SmartCloud Connections profile that enables creation of
temporary account for 60 days.
C. Carl can invite the customer through SmartCloud for Social Business which will send a link for his
customer to join as a guest user.
D. There is nothing Carl can do without creating a SmartCloud for Social Business account for the
customer within Carl's SmartCloud company organization.
Answer: C

IBM   000-N19 original questions   000-N19

NO.5 Sarah's SmartCloud for Social Business account was enabled with Skype integration by her
Administrator. What is a requirement to access this SmartCloud for Social Business Integrated
Application?
A. The Skype client is required.
B. The SkypeOut setting must be enabled within SmartCloud for Social Business for calling other Skype
users.
C. This is an integrated application, therefore, the Skype client is not required.
D. Her Administrator must also enable VoIP to connect with SmartCloud for Social Business contacts.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N24
Exam Name: IBM (IBM QRadar Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: serID: smiths
A. rID\:\s(.*?)\s
B. Use\:\s(.*?)\s
C. rID\:(\d+)\s
D. serid\:(.*?)\?serid\:(.*?)\
Answer: A

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NO.2 Write a regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=miths?Write a
regular expression that extracts only the username from the string: Username=?miths
A. \?smith)\?\?smith)\
B. Ame=?.*?)\?Ame=?.*?)\
C. =\?.*?)
D. ame\=\?.*?)\?ame\=\?.*?)\
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you add a new (supported) DSM to the system?
A. Download the rpm to the console and use the rpm command to add it.
B. You cannot add new DSMs to the system.
C. Configure autoupdate on the admin tab and manually add the DSM using the rpm command on the
console.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What characteristic distinguishes QRadar from other SIM/SIEM solutions?
A. QRadar is the only solution that works in a heterogeneous environment.
B. QRadar has the best correlation engine.
C. QRadar supports many more devices.
D. QRadar is the only SIM/SIEM solution that natively processes flows.
Answer: D

IBM pdf   000-N24   000-N24

NO.5 Which method can be used to deliver log data to QRadar?
A. Syslog
B. Opsec/LEA
C. TFTP
D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N14
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which section within Deployment Manager client would the user expand upon to see all folders and
objects that she is authorized to view?
A. Submitted Jobs
B. Content Repository
C. Resource Definitions
D. Repository Insight
Answer: B

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NO.4 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer created a parallel C&DS installation on a separate server, using a copy of the production
repository database. She can login to the repository, objects are being displayed, but most jobs fail to run
and cannot be edited. What could be a likely cause?
A. During the installation, the customer chose to Discard Existing Data data rather than Preserve Existing
Data.
B. Application server has not been started.
C. The save/restore process only migrated part of the content repository data.
D. Additional packages, existing in the production environment, have not been reinstalled after installation
of the parallel environment.
Answer: D

IBM test questions   000-N14 test   000-N14   000-N14

NO.6 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

IBM   000-N14   000-N14

NO.7 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New, Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A user, using the
Deployment Manager windows client, is complaining that an issue that the patch should have fixed in the
client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received a version
update message.
Answer: D

IBM answers real questions   000-N14   000-N14   000-N14

NO.10 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-N23
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureApplication System Technical Sales Mastery Test v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What hardware component is NOT included with IBM PureApplication System?
A. Power Distribution Units (PDUs)
B. Top of Rack Switches
C. Uninterruptable Power Supplies (UPS)
D. Storage Controllers
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator on IBM PureApplication System wants to delegate his current role for catalog
content, virtual instances, and pattern types to another user. Which of the following settings would
the administrator grant?
A. Cloud administration
B. Workload resource administration
C. Hardware administration
D. Security administration
Answer: B

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NO.3 Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor.
What can you deduce from it? (Choose three.)
A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted
B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order
C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint
D. The DB2 part has to start first
Answer: A,B,D

IBM   000-N23   000-N23   000-N23 answers real questions

NO.4 Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine tuning
for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been implemented
modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the following is
NOT true?
A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor
B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time
C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages
D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own
Answer: D

IBM answers real questions   000-N23 questions   000-N23   000-N23

NO.5 When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration
parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process?
A. cbscript.json
B. config.sh
C. virtualimage.properties
D. appmodel.json
Answer: A

IBM   000-N23   000-N23 exam   000-N23

NO.6 What are available administration interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.)
A. Web Console
B. Command line tool
C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs
D. Eclipse based plug-in
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with IBM
PureApplication System, does one of the following:
A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages
between components
B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD
C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the
pattern
D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern
Answer: D

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NO.8 The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM
PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.)
A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console
B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support
C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE
D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 The IBM Tivoli Monitoring Agent for IBM PureApplication System provides information about
deployments when which the following is true?
A. The agent is running internal to the system
B. The agent is running external to the system
C. The agent is running either internal or external to the system
D. The agent does not provide deployment information
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different scenarios:
1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable 2.Production where
workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a scaling policy to
dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM
PureApplication System to accomplish this task?
A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one
B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual
application
C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and
policies accordingly
D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the
production scenario
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-823
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Quality Manager V3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What is the term for data collection jobs in Rational Quality Manager?
A. Enable, Transmission, Load (ETL)
B. Enable, Transformation, Lead (ETL)
C. Extract, Transform, Load (ETL)
D. Extract, Transport, Load (ETL)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are three acceptable parameters for the IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-the-box report:
Execution Status using TER count? (Choose three.)
A. test plan
B. test milestone
C. defect logged
D. test case
E. build
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 How do you find all the test artifacts that have the same tag? (Choose three.)
A. use a filter to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
B. use the Tag Cloud Dashboard viewlet to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
C. create a query for all test artifacts with the tagged value
D. perform a search to find all test artifacts with the tagged value
E. sort by the tag column on the View Test Cases/View Test Scripts views
Answer: A,C,D

IBM   000-823   000-823   000-823 braindump   000-823

NO.4 IBM Rational Quality Manager out-of-box reports are grouped under which three themes.? (Choose
three.)
A. defects
B. test case
C. cost
D. section manager
E. lab manager
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 What are three valid category types in Rational Quality Manager? (Choose three.)
A. subcategories
B. required categories
C. multivalued categories
D. calculated categories
E. personal categories
Answer: A,B,C

IBM   000-823   000-823 exam prep   000-823

NO.6 RRDI supports which application server?
A. Tomcat
B. WAS (32-bit)
C. WAS (64-bit)
D. WebLogic
Answer: B

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NO.7 What happens when migrating Rational ClearQuest TestManager product with associated automated
tests?
A. The Rational ClearQuest projects must be migrated before the automated scripts.
B. You must import or refer to the automated test scripts in IBM Rational Quality Manager before
migrating your Rational ClearQuest Test Manager projects.
C. The order in which project versus automated script migration does not matter.
D. Automated scripts are included when importing Rational ClearQuest Test Manager projects.
Answer: B

IBM   000-823 demo   000-823

NO.8 In a manual test script, what is the difference between an execution step and a reporting step?
A. An execution step is an instruction for the tester, and a reporting step is a point in a test where the
tester evaluates the behavior of the application under test.
B. An execution step is an automated task, and a reporting step is a link to a library of reusable test
scripts.
C. An execution step is a task that the tester must perform, and a reporting step is a link to a defect or a
test case.
D. An execution step is a link to an automated test, and a reporting step is an instruction for the test to run
a report.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are the possible states of a test plan in its state transition model?
A. draft, ready for review, reviewed, closed
B. draft, under review, approved, retired
C. created, under review, reviewed , retired
D. created, ready for review, approved, closed
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement is true about connecting to an IBM Rational RequisitePro server?
A. You must be a member of the IBM Rational Quality Manager (RQM) project RequisitePro.
B. You must be a member of the JazzAdmins group and a member of the RQM project RequisitePro.
C. You must be a member of the JazzAdmins group and have access to a Rational RequisitePro server
and project areas.
D. You must have a Quality Professional license.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-652
Exam Name: IBM (Curam Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Understanding how the tiers of government operate is critical to successful opportunity identification
and prospecting since that understanding allows you to:
A.Align the payment schedules to the government schedules
B.Know which is the middle tier so as not to incorrectly promote them to the top and bottom
C.Know where to send the invoice whenCuramsolutions are sold
D.AlignCuramsolutions directly to the business of the jurisdiction
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a case?
A.It is used to manage interactions between the participant and the agency
B.A case is a category of intake questions
C.It is a key part ofCuram
D.A and C
Answer: C

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NO.3 Curam is a fully integrated product suite.What types of social programs does Curam support?
A.Social Security
B.Free milk program
C.The space program
D.None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Social Program Management Platform Value Proposition includes:
A.Enables a rapid, lower-risk implementation by leveraging pre-built and configurable social services
elements and business processes
B.Empowers the business to define and deploy new programs through configuration tools in a runtime
environment
C.Protects current investment and provides flexibility to address new and emerging service delivery
trends
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Curam is an important component of IBM s Smarter Cities strategy by providing the solutions for which
segment of the Smarter Cities framework:
A.Infrastructure
B.Planning and Management
C.Human
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N33
Exam Name: IBM (IBM i2 IntelligenceTechnical Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which item below is not one of the analysis attributes?
A.Entity Earliest Link
B.Entity Average Link
C.Entity Latest Link
D.Entity Connections
Answer: B

IBM   000-N33 questions   000-N33 exam

NO.2 Which of the following is not an Attribute Class Type?
A.Text
B.Flag
C.Real Number
D.Date & Time
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Social Network Analysis centrality measure is the most suitable to identify gatekeeper
entities in a computer network?
A.Closeness
B.Betweenness
C.Degree
D.Eigenvector
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-660
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 23 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A developer creating mobile applications combining native and standard web technologies will
use:
A. IBM Worklight Studio (The product's IDE).
B. Their own Mac machine using Xcode
C. Hybrid applications using Objective-C
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true?
A. Worklight Console is where services connectivity may be configured for the mobile application.
B. Worklight Console allows for the creation of a user experience based on open source libraries and
HTML5.
C. Worklight Console is not connected to Worklight Server or ID
D. Worklight Console allows for push notifications, version control and direct updates.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which customer scenario represents the most ideal prospect for IBM Worklight Platform?
A. The customer that wants a pure native application and is looking to their digital design agency,
that built their ecommerce website, to now build their mobile application.
B. The customer that is looking for a solution to help build mobile hybrid applications in house by
their web development team.
C. The customer that believes they do not need a presence on commercial App Stores and just
wants a server side mobile web experience for their customers.
D. The customer that is looking for a simple single app for a single device for its internal employees.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-129
Exam Name: IBM (IBM i 7.1 Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 164 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 An administrator has been asked to update an IBM i 7.1 system to the most current
Technology Refresh available from IBM. Which method is the most appropriate to achieve the
update?
A. Perform a D-mode IPL using the Technology Group PTF package SF99707.
B. Perform a slip install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
C. Perform a scratch install using the most current 1_Base_01 resave media available.
D. Perform an install of the Technology Group PTF package SF99707 using the GO PTF menu.
Answer: D

IBM   000-129   000-129   000-129 exam

NO.2 A disaster recovery test is being performed, using backups from a production system. The
backup process is as follows:
Full system save, using GO SAVE Option 21, for weekly backup
SAVCHGOBJ LIB(*ALL) is used for daily library backup, in addition to DLO and IFS saves
The disaster recovery test is at the point where libraries are ready to be restored
Which pair of actions will restore the libraries to the most recent save point, in the minimum
amount of time?
A. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. For
each daily tape, run a RSTLIB for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ.
B. Use RSTLIB(*NONSYS) to restore all libraries and object from the SAVE 21 weekly save. Then
run a RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
C. Run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the most recent daily tape.
Then run RSTLIB(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
D. For each daily tape, run RSTOBJ for each library saved by SAVCHGOBJ on the daily tapes.
Then run RSTOBJ(*NONSYS) OPTION(*NEW) to restore the remaining libraries and objects from
the SAVE 21 weekly save.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the key benefits provided by database journaling?
A. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions Can
reduce system I/O workload
B. Can reduce application complexity Can back out incomplete transactions Can maintain database
integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
C. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can increase performance Can maintain
database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
D. Can send updates concurrently to a second system Can back out incomplete transactions and
commitment control Can maintain database integrity in the case of an unexpected outage
Answer: D

IBM   000-129   000-129   000-129

NO.4 Which statement describes server firmware delivery that uses PTF5 on a POWER7 system?
A. A single IBM i (57703S1) PTF is ordered to update server firmware.
B. The firmware is ordered using the marker PTF ID, such as MHxxxxx, and is installed with normal
IBM i PTE commands.
C. The server firmware PTE (MFxxxxx) is ordered from the connected HMC and is sent to the service
partition for install.
D. The HIPER PTF group is ordered for the Licensed Internal Code (5770999) and the order is flagged
with Include Firmware Update *YES.
Answer: A

IBM questions   000-129   000-129

NO.5 Due to an application problem, management has requested the IPL of a partition running IBM i
7.1. The administrator initiates the IPL, and during the restart phase notices the IPL is running in
manual mode even though the HMC partition settings indicate B NORMAL.
Why is the IPL running in manual mode?
A. The PWRDWNSYS command restart parameter is set to *MANUAL.
B. Manual is the default IPL mode when there is a console problem.
C. The QIPLTYPE system value is set to "Attended IPL, Console in debug mode".
D. Manual is the default IPL mode when the previous system end indicator is abnormal.
Answer: C

IBM   000-129   000-129   000-129

NO.6 A Power 720 currently has its firmware update policy set to Os Managed. Which statement is
correct?
A. Server firmware updates will always be disruptive.
B. IPLing from the A side of any partition will activate the new server firmware.
C. Only the Service partition needs PTEs to be installed for the new server firmware to be
immediately activated.
D. Only the Managing partition needs PTF5 to be installed for the new server firmware to be
temporarily activated.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company has just purchased a new POWER7 server running IBM i 7.1 to replace an older
system running V5R4M5. Due to a mistake by a programmer on the V5R4 system, data was
accidently deleted. To recover, the administrator backs up the deleted data to virtual tape on the
7.1 server and attempts to restore it on the V5R4 server. The restore on the V5R4 server fails with a
message stating the data was saved from a more recent release of the operating system.
Which option will solve this problem?
A. Save the data to physical media.
B. Set the target release parameter to V5R4M0 when saving the data.
C. ETP the virtual tape image catalog from the 7.1 server using binary mode.
D. Use the target release parameter *RECOVER and the access path parameter set to VSR4MO.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer is upgrading an HMC to a new release using Recovery DVD5 for the new release
level. Which action must be completed before performing the upgrade from DVD process?
A. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to DVD.
B. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to HMC disk.
C. Run the 'HMC Management> Back Up HMC Data' to NFS server.
D. Run the 'HMC Management> Save Upgrade Data' to the administrator's PC.
Answer: B

IBM   000-129   000-129

NO.9 An administrator maintains four image catalogs on a host partition that are used by
network-based virtual optical drives. Periodically, images are added or removed from the catalog
and it must be re-exported.
What is the simplest method to update the share and NES export?
A. Create a CL program.
B. Create a REXX program.
C. Create a Qshell script.
D. Run the statements manually as needed.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which graphical tool will help identity additional details about activity on the system, to
isolate the root cause of performance problems?
A. PEX
B. iDoctor
C. Performance Monitor
D. Communications Trace
Answer: B

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NO.11 Several IBM i partitions at a customer site provide outdated contact information to IBM when
problems are reported. Which command should be used to correct the contact information?
A. CHGSVCCFG
B. CHGCNTINF
C. SNDSRVRQS *UPD
D. WRKCNTINE, option 2
Answer: D

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NO.12 Journaling of a large library is running on SYSTEMA and the journal is system managed.
Remote journaling to
SYSTEMB has been configured. Due to a communications problem between SYSTEMA and SYSTEMB,
remote journaling is not working and cannot be quickly restarted.
Disk utilization on SYSTEMA is increasing rapidly. To reduce disk utilization the administrator tries to
delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA. Attempts fail and the following message displays:
CPF705F: Receiver not replicated to 1 remote journals.
What must the administrator do to delete journal receivers on SYSTEMA?
A. Delete and recreate only the journal, and then delete the receivers.
B. Stop journaling, as this must be ended first, and then delete the receivers.
C. Use the DLTJRNRCV command and change the delete option parameter to ignore target receivers.
D. Use the CHGJRN command to change the Manage Receivers parameter to allow user
management of journal receivers and then delete the receivers.
Answer: C

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NO.13 A batch job runs daily in the QBATCH subsystem with a run priority of 50. The job normally
takes an hour to complete and no other batch jobs run during this time.
The administrator needs to reduce the run time and requests the run priority be lowered to 40.
However1 after the change, run time does not decrease.
What is the likely reason that the run time did not decrease?
A. The run priority applies to only interactive jobs.
B. D82 Symmetric Multiprocessing has not been installed.
C. The run priority represents only the relative importance of the job.
D. The system value QPFRADJ (Performance Adjustment) is set to "No adjustment."
Answer: C

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NO.14 The threshold limit has been reached for the system ASP on a system running IBM i 7.1 .
There are some disk units configured to a user ASP available. Business continuing policy prevents
the administrator from stopping the system.
How could the system administrator correct the storage problem in the system ASP?
A. Increase the ASP threshold above the currently utilized storage.
B. Concurrently remove available disk units from user ASP using the "Remove units from
configuration" SST option and add them to system ASP .
C. Switch to the backup system using an HA solution and restart the original system to DST. Remove
the available disk units from user ASP and add them to system ASP .
D. Initiate a control panel function 21 to activate DST on the system console for the affected
partition. Use the DST feature to compress the parity stripe to increase available storage.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An administrator needs to restore a physical file DATALIB/SMALLFILE from a Save 21 backup
of library DATALIB. DATALIB has several hundred large database files plus other objects.
The administrator has the job log and output from the last full save of DATALIB.
What should the administrator do to restore SMALLFILE in the shortest time?
A. Run the RST command for object "/QSYS.LIB/DATALIB.LIB/SMALLFILE.FILE"
B. Delete SMALLFILE, run RSTLIB specifying *NEW objects, and specify library DATALIB as the
starting library.
C. Run RSTLIB for library DATALIB specifying the position parameter for SMALLFILE in library DATALIB
from the output of the save.
D. Run RSTOBJ for DATALIB/SMALLFILE specifying the position and sequence number for SMALLFILE
in library DATALIB from the output of the save.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BAS-001
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new
OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organization structure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three values are correct Object Manager command line parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Dump or “d”
B. Extract or “e”
C. Load or “l”
D. Verify or “V”
E. Test or“t”
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You want to configure new fields in the IBM OpenPages platform using data types. What are
three
valid data types? (Choose three.)
A. Single file
B. Reporting fragment
C. Picklist
D. Currency
E. Rich text
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which three statements describe valid business benefits of IBM OpenPages platform modules?
(Choose three.)
A. Provides confidence that compliance is achieved, risks are mitigated and corporate policies and
procedures are enforced.
B. Provides a compliance and business focused view into the corporate general ledger.
C. Provides executive management with assurance into the state of compliance.
D. Standardizes compliance across regulations to reduce cost and deliver a holistic understanding
of all compliance risk.
E. Provides assurance to executive management that the company meets all corporate board
governance goals.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 A user requires the ability to create child Processes directly associated to parent Business
Entities
in the application. Which minimum Security Access Control Permissions should the administrator
grant to the user’s role template?
A. Grant read access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
B. Grant read/write access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
C. Grant read/write/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write access on the Process.
D. Grant read/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are using the OpenPages GPO platform and want to develop a new workflow. Which tool
would you use?
A. Interstage BPM Console
B. Interstage BPM Workflow Studio
C. CommandCenter Query Studio
D. Microsoft Office Visio
Answer: B

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NO.8 In IBM OpenPages, you want to configure a profile. Which three functions are available?
(Choose
three.)
A. Associate users.
B. Add new fields to the database.
C. Set localized object text.
D. Set up a home page.
E. Configure views for an object type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.9 You are working with an AECON data sheet. What are two global configurations? (Choose
two.)
A. Dependent picklists
B. Detail View
C. Field dependencies
D. Activity Views
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 The Object Manager tool provided with OpenPages allows for the import and export of data
in
which format?
A. XLS
B. SQL
C. PDF
D. XML
Answer: D

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